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 1 John 5: 7-8

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Merissa



Number of posts : 4
Registration date : 2006-12-21

PostSubject: 1 John 5: 7-8   Tue May 01, 2007 5:39 pm

Hi Guys,
Why do some versions of the bible eg.The Amplified state that this verse was not apart of the early scriptures?


Merissa.
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DamianR



Number of posts : 8
Registration date : 2007-02-27

PostSubject: Your guess is as good as mine   Mon May 14, 2007 3:18 pm

Well your guess is as good as mine merissa.
I just pulled up the scripture on the computer in the amplified version to, but there was no mention of it not being in early scripture.
But as i write, it hits me that the division in the bible, i.e. the old and new testament, were not written in the same era, yet the meaning behind the words are constant and scripture cannot be broken.
Moses's law was before psalms, and the psalms before Christ words and Christ's Gospel before Paul's letters.
So chronologically speaking of course it won't be written in early scipture. However, i am sure that there is something in earlier scripture that will still be along the same line in meaning. one just need principle wisdom to figure it out.
Know that the bible is a collection of divine books or scrolls put together for man's convenience which i believe was to fullfull the prophecy that the gospel must be preached in all nations before Christ comes again.

Luke 4:17 shows that the bible as a binded book did not exist but the individual books or components of the bible were available in jewish temples.
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